Week 1 - Case File - Emergency Medicine, Section - Head, Eyes, Ears, Nose, & Throat, Case Study - Acute Angle-Closure Glaucoma
Discipline: Nursing
Type of Paper: Question-Answer
Academic Level: Undergrad. (yrs 3-4)
Paper Format: APA
Question
A 63-year-old woman presents to the emergency department (ED) with severe left eye pain, redness, and blurred vision for 3 hours. Her right eye is asymptomatic. She denies preceding trauma, photophobia, ocular discharge, increased tearing, prior similar events, or past eye surgery. She is farsighted and sometimes wears nonprescription reading glasses. Other symptoms include seeing colored halos around the light fixtures in the ED, having a headache over her left brow, some nausea, and one episode of vomiting. She denies dizziness, weakness, imbalance, abdominal pain, and chest pain.
On examination, her blood pressure is 138/80 mm Hg, and the other vital signs are normal. She is alert and in obvious discomfort but can tolerate ambient light. She has no periorbital signs of trauma. The left conjunctiva has ciliary flush (circumferential reddish ring around the cornea) but no discharge or visible foreign body. Visual acuity is 20/30 in the right eye but only finger counting in the left eye. Visual fields are grossly intact. Gentle palpation of the closed left eye reveals that it is much firmer than the right. Her left pupil is 5 mm, fixed, and unreactive. Her right eye appears normal; the pupil is 3 mm and briskly reactive. She does not experience pain in the left eye when direct light is applied to the right eye (absent consensual photophobia). When a penlight is shone temporally across each eye, the beam does not reach the nasal side. Extraocular movements are intact and nonpainful. The left cornea is slightly cloudy, which makes fundoscopy difficult. The right fundus appears normal. Her temporal arteries are pulsatile and nontender. The rest of the physical examination, including the remainder of the neurologic examination, is normal.
Questions
What is the most likely diagnosis?
What is the best next therapeutic step?
Answers to Case 49: Acute Angle-Closure Glaucoma
Summary: A 63-year-old woman presents with
Acute onset of left eye redness, pain, and markedly decreased visual acuity
A left eye that feels firmer to palpation compared to the right eye
A cloudy left cornea with a fixed and dilated pupil
Next diagnostic step: Measure intraocular pressures (IOP) in both eyes using tonometry and perform a slit-lamp examination to assess for inflammatory changes and the presence of red blood cells or white cells in the anterior chamber.
Best next therapeutic step: Preserve vision by lowering the IOP as quickly as possible. Consult ophthalmology emergently.
Objectives
List the vision-threatening causes of a painful red eye. (EPA 2, 10)
Describe the basic treatment modalities and disposition options for vision-threatening causes of a painful red eye. (EPA 4)
Recognize the clinical signs, symptoms, and complications of acute primary angle-closure glaucoma. (EPA 2, 3, 10)
Describe the key treatment modalities and their potential complications for acute angle-closure glaucoma. (EPA 4, 12)
Considerations
This case is an example of acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG), a true ophthalmologic emergency characterized by rapidly elevated IOP. In AACG, elevated IOP compromises blood flow to the optic nerve and leads to the loss of retinal ganglion cells, which can result in permanent vision loss. This patient likely has underlying narrow anterior chamber angles (congenital structural narrowing) that, combined with being in dim lighting causing her pupils to dilate, limited the outflow of aqueous humor as the cornea and iris came together (ie, pupillary block). Careful questioning eliminated the use of prescribed medications or over-the-counter drugs as additional potential triggers of AACG.
Clinical Pearls
Vision-threatening causes of red eye include acute angle-closure glaucoma, anterior uveitis, endophthalmitis, corneal ulcer, corneal infection, chlamydial/gonococcal conjunctivitis, orbital cellulitis, hyphema, retrobulbar hemorrhage, and scleritis.
Subconjunctival hemorrhages should be painless and do not affect vision. In the setting of blunt trauma, continue evaluating for hyphema, hypopyon, globe rupture, endophthalmitis, or retrobulbar hemorrhage if the patient complains of pain or vision changes because emergent ophthalmologic consultation would then be indicated.
Visual acuity, penlight pupil assessment, slit-lamp examination, fluorescein staining, measurement of intraocular pressure, and fundoscopy are essential elements of a thorough evaluation of the red eye.
Beware of systemic complications from topical ophthalmologic medications. Complications such as bradycardia and bronchospasm due to topical beta-blockers are common.
Reference
Question 1 of 3
A 45-year-old man complains of the acute onset of right eye redness with circumcorneal injection (ciliary flush), blurred vision, and pain with bright lights. On examination, his pupil is small and minimally reactive. Cell and flare are noted on slit-lamp examination. There is no fluorescein uptake. He also has pain in the affected eye when light is directed in the unaffected eye (consensual photophobia). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG)
Acute anterior uveitis
Herpes zoster virus infection
Corneal abrasion
You will be able to view all answers at the end of your quiz.
The correct answer is B. You answered B.
B. Acute anterior uveitis. Anterior uveitis usually presents as photophobia, blurred vision, a painful red eye, and an indirect consensual light reflex. A ciliary flush and cells with flare are noted on slit-lamp examination. AACG (answer A) usually presents as a painful red eye with a cloudy cornea, shallow anterior chamber, and mid-dilation of the pupil. Slit-lamp exam will not reveal any cells in the anterior chamber. Both herpes zoster virus keratitis (answer C) and corneal abrasion (answer D) will have positive fluorescein uptake.
Question 2 of 3
A 48-year-old woman with diabetes presents with 1 day of right eye pain, foreign body sensation, redness, and decreased vision. She underwent an artificial lens implant procedure in the right eye 2 days ago but missed her follow-up appointment. Visual acuity is to hand movement only in the right eye and is 20/30 in her left eye. The right pupil is 3 mm and sluggishly reactive, and the left pupil is 3 mm and briskly reactive. The right eye has a prominent ciliary flush and a hazy cornea; a right hypopyon is also present. The left conjunctivum and cornea are normal. Cell and flare are noted in the right eye. There is no fluorescein uptake. The right fundus cannot be visualized, and the red reflex is absent due to corneal haziness. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Prescribe a topical ophthalmic steroid medication and have the patient return to the emergency department (ED) in 24 hours.
Prescribe a topical ophthalmic antibiotic medication and have the patient return to the ED in 12 hours.
Arrange an emergent ophthalmology consultation.
Check the blood glucose, and if it is elevated, recommend an urgent visit to her doctor.
You will be able to view all answers at the end of your quiz.
The correct answer is C. You answered C.
C. Arrange an emergent ophthalmology consultation. An emergent ophthalmology consult is appropriate for possible endophthalmitis in a diabetic patient with recent eye surgery and a hypopyon. This patient will require hospital admission with intravenous and intravitreal antibiotics. A topical steroid (answer A) is used for some rare inflammatory conditions of the eye in the absence of infection. Topical ophthalmic antibiotic medication (answer B) is used for various types of bacterial conjunctivitis and is insufficient for this likely very serious infection; delay of 12 hours can mean loss of vision. An urgent primary care physician appointment for elevated glucose (answer D) is warranted when there are systemic symptoms of hyperglycemia; in this case, the complaint is dealing with vision.
Question 3 of 3
A 39-year-old man with a history of migraines presents to the ED with a headache over both brows, nausea, and blurry vision for the past 6 hours. He recently started taking topiramate for his migraines. His current headache began gradually but is slightly worse than usual. The presence of blurry vision is new. He denies trauma or fever. Visual acuity is 20/200 in both eyes, and the pupils are each 4 mm and minimally reactive. The conjunctivae are injected, and the anterior chambers are clear but shallow. There is no fluorescein uptake. Fundoscopy is normal. The neurologic exam is nonfocal. Which of the following is the most important next diagnostic test?
Computed tomography (CT) of the head without contrast
CT of the orbit
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the head
Tonometry
You will be able to view all answers at the end of your quiz.
The correct answer is D. You answered D.
D. Tonometry. AACG is an uncommon but significant side effect of topiramate, an anticonvulsant and antimigraine medication. Patients typically present with bilateral blurry vision, headache, nausea, and vomiting. However, eye redness is minimal or absent, unlike most cases of AACG. Topiramate-induced AACG is usually bilateral and occurs within several weeks of beginning the medication or within several hours if the dosage is doubled. When AACG is suspected, tonometry to measure the intraocular pressure should be performed. Imaging of the head (answer A, CT without contrast, and answer C, MRI) would be indicated if the patient had neurologic deficits or if the intraocular pressures were normal. CT of the orbit (answer B) would be indicated if there were anatomic abnormalities of the orbit on exam.